the skipper
Professional Curmudgeon
Actually, no. The two males replace the jumper and another interconnect goes from the dangling female to the external amp.I think you got the genders wrong in your photo.
Actually, no. The two males replace the jumper and another interconnect goes from the dangling female to the external amp.I think you got the genders wrong in your photo.
Actually, no. The two males replace the jumper and another interconnect goes from the dangling female to the external amp.
Sit corrected. Since the grounds are shared, that should indeed work even if the outputs are not on the same "leg".Actually, no. The two males replace the jumper and another interconnect goes from the dangling female to the external amp.
there is a check to be made to all of this
speakers powered by different amps can be out of phase with eachother unless all amps are the same model
Actually, no. The two males replace the jumper and another interconnect goes from the dangling female to the external amp.
Here is the scoop...Unfortunately, receiver manufacturers rarely publish specs for preamplifier outputs. Nor are input load specs published for all power amplifiers either which can vary widely from one amplifier to the next. The effects of improper loading between components is no different than it is for phono cartridges - namely irregular frequency response.
Without knowing what the values are for the specific units, it is impossible to answer in the absolute whether there will be any negative sonic effects or not.
Here is the scoop...
Should I go for it?
What is the worst that can happen? Could I compromise reliability of the preamp / receiver?
Sure. Why not! Not even close!
Seek and ye shall find...Input impedance of second amp......47000 ohms
Input impedance of Onkyo TX8500 amp.......???
Output impedance of Onkyo TX8500 preamp......???
My thought was that the engineers at Onkyo probably did not intend for this and maybe the impedance specs of the preamp / amp within the TX8500 are such that this will pose a problem.
OK, so what is the relationship exactly between the impedance at the pre and impedance at the amp? I understand by running the amps in parallel, the impedance is cut in half. But how does the preamp impedance come into play?Seek and ye shall find...
Amp input 50k ohms
Pre out 3k ohms.
3k pre driving ~24k amplifier load. Not ideal, but it's cheap to give it a try!
Understood.You probably won't even notice anything! I keep telling you that nothing bad will happen. No smoke, no pops, no fizz, etc.
The most that will happen is that you may or may not like the sound.
Not so much that highs distort as they might roll off and dynamics may suffer. Nothing horrible on the horizon. Give it a try.OK, so what is the relationship exactly between the impedance at the pre and impedance at the amp? I understand by running the amps in parallel, the impedance is cut in half. But how does the preamp impedance come into play?