1 ohm load, 50A current yields a good number. Something I believe the amp will do. 50V 2500 watts.
Why would they put it in the specs if it can't do it. And if it can't how far off is it.
I believe you are stuck in a rut of wanting an rms current from an amp or something and although I'm asking you to help explain high current, you might not have the background to be able to do that and are just relying on Mr. Ohm. He did great work, it is a fundamental of electrical training but instantaneous and watts per channel specs are worlds apart. Sorry if this have been confusing for you.
Nice try, but there is no confusion here. It is the opposite of confusion, actually, that drives my skepticism of nebulous specifications.
Ohm's Law does not change regardless if peak or continuous. If one uses peak value inputs then peak value result is what you get. Same goes for continuous.
So, getting back to 50A peak, as I said earlier, the point about it isn't that the amp can't necessarily do it. It probably can...under some contrived lab/bench test. The BS part is their use of an unqualified/nebulous spec that leaves consumer imaginations to run wild.
Since we don't know the test condition that McCormack used to derive the 50A peak specification we can't say what it actually represents. We can examine it and I think reasonably conclude what it is not, but what it actually means only McCormack knows.
Looking at the ratings, we are able to derive the RMS voltages at clipping based on the watts at the listed impedances. To get peak voltages we'd multiply the RMS voltages by 1.414. This we can then apply back against various loads to see what the current
could be.
So, if we look at the specs that actually allow examination, we see 500W @ 2 ohms @ clipping. That gives about 31Vrms, which is roughly 44Vpk.
Now, applying 44Vpk to various load we see that 44Vpk at 1 ohm does not give us 50A, but only 44A. So we can reason to get 50A peak current to a speaker the speaker's impedance will have to be less than 1 ohm. This assessment doesn't include any consideration that the actual peak voltage may be less because more losses at the lower impeance.
So, my conclusion is that it is plausible the amp
could put out a 50A current peak, but likely it is at sub-1 ohm. This is where the BS part comes into play.
How many sub-1 ohm speakers are there, so how relevant is this spec?. IMO it's largely fluff because it won't be realized except on the lab test bench or
maybe in the rare case you actually have speaker with sub-ohm impedance.
Further, simply because they publish a 50A peak "spec" (quotes because a spec shouldn't be nebulous) doesn't mean the amp can do anything more that any other amp producing the same output at same load, but without a "high current" or peak current "spec" attached to it.
