damacman
Resident Psycho
So, let's all learn something (me included). I have, like many of you, developed a preference for a certain brand of amplifier when using it to drive subwoofers. For me, that brand has been Crown. It just seems like the Crown amplifiers have a control over the drivers that other amps (including McIntosh) can't seem to match.
One would be inclined to draw the conclusion that damping factor is why - the typical Crown having a far greater damping factor than the typical McIntosh. Over the years, McIntosh (Gordon Gow specifically I believe) has done demonstrations in dealer show rooms to prove this is a fallacy. Unfortunately, I never saw any of those demos - maybe c_dk or twiiii have.
So, is damping factor the reason or is it something else? After all, a moving loudspeaker obviously exerts back EMF on the output section of the amplifier driving it . . .
A really good friend of mine owns a company at which he performs competitive analysis on power amplifiers for a living. Once a firm believer in damping factor, he now laughs at the idea. His logic is sound. First, consider the formula for damping factor:
DF = Load Impedance / Amplifier Output Impedance
[Refer to this white paper from Crown if you like - http://www.crownaudio.com/media/pdf/amps/damping_factor.pdf ]
So, if we've got the typical 8 Ohm speaker, you can see that DF improves as Amplifier Output Impedance decreases. Consider the following examples:
MC2300 - According to the manual, Damping Factor is 14 at the 8 Ohm Output tap therefore the output impedance at the 8 Ohm tap would be .57 Ohms.
Crown MT2400 - According to Crown, Damping Factor is "better than 1000 from 10 Hz to 400 Hz", therefore the output impedance would be .0008 for those 5+ octaves. [It is worth noting that Crown doesn't specify which impedance this correlates to.]
In my listening experience, the Crown definitely seems to have a distinct edge over the McIntosh when driving subwoofers. But why? Let's follow my friend's logic now. According to him, one has to factor DCR of the load to compute the actual damping factor. This certainly makes sense.
Let's consider the subwoofers I use (two 18" with Dual 4 Ohm VCs). According to my Fluke 87 V DMM, the DCR of a single woofer with both coils in series (8 Ohms) is 7.0 Ohms.
Let's assume the DCR of the speaker wire is negligible (it really isn't) - how can the DCR of the voice coil(s) of the load be ignored? If we use DCR as a factor in computing DF, then it's a wash:
MC2300 - (.57 Ohms + 7.0 Ohms) / 8 Ohms = .95 DF
MT2400 - (.0008 + 7.0 Ohms) / 8 Ohms = .88 DF
Obviously, Damping Factor must change with frequency as the impedance of the load is constantly changing with frequency. I actually do have an impedance meter and can tell you the exact impedance of these woofers at any frequency between 20Hz and 400Hz . . . but, is that even necessary here?
I have more to share, but first - let's hear from some of the gurus. I'm as eager as anyone to get to the bottom of this.
One would be inclined to draw the conclusion that damping factor is why - the typical Crown having a far greater damping factor than the typical McIntosh. Over the years, McIntosh (Gordon Gow specifically I believe) has done demonstrations in dealer show rooms to prove this is a fallacy. Unfortunately, I never saw any of those demos - maybe c_dk or twiiii have.
So, is damping factor the reason or is it something else? After all, a moving loudspeaker obviously exerts back EMF on the output section of the amplifier driving it . . .
A really good friend of mine owns a company at which he performs competitive analysis on power amplifiers for a living. Once a firm believer in damping factor, he now laughs at the idea. His logic is sound. First, consider the formula for damping factor:
DF = Load Impedance / Amplifier Output Impedance
[Refer to this white paper from Crown if you like - http://www.crownaudio.com/media/pdf/amps/damping_factor.pdf ]
So, if we've got the typical 8 Ohm speaker, you can see that DF improves as Amplifier Output Impedance decreases. Consider the following examples:
MC2300 - According to the manual, Damping Factor is 14 at the 8 Ohm Output tap therefore the output impedance at the 8 Ohm tap would be .57 Ohms.
Crown MT2400 - According to Crown, Damping Factor is "better than 1000 from 10 Hz to 400 Hz", therefore the output impedance would be .0008 for those 5+ octaves. [It is worth noting that Crown doesn't specify which impedance this correlates to.]
In my listening experience, the Crown definitely seems to have a distinct edge over the McIntosh when driving subwoofers. But why? Let's follow my friend's logic now. According to him, one has to factor DCR of the load to compute the actual damping factor. This certainly makes sense.
Let's consider the subwoofers I use (two 18" with Dual 4 Ohm VCs). According to my Fluke 87 V DMM, the DCR of a single woofer with both coils in series (8 Ohms) is 7.0 Ohms.
Let's assume the DCR of the speaker wire is negligible (it really isn't) - how can the DCR of the voice coil(s) of the load be ignored? If we use DCR as a factor in computing DF, then it's a wash:
MC2300 - (.57 Ohms + 7.0 Ohms) / 8 Ohms = .95 DF
MT2400 - (.0008 + 7.0 Ohms) / 8 Ohms = .88 DF
Obviously, Damping Factor must change with frequency as the impedance of the load is constantly changing with frequency. I actually do have an impedance meter and can tell you the exact impedance of these woofers at any frequency between 20Hz and 400Hz . . . but, is that even necessary here?
I have more to share, but first - let's hear from some of the gurus. I'm as eager as anyone to get to the bottom of this.
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