I get that. But my point is, or rather question, volume increase per increment on the pre must be commensurate to total output power of the particular amp. Wouldn't a higher power amp yield a greater increase per increment?
At the same preamp output, two different power amps are likely to produce different output to the speakers (because of different input sensitivities and gain structures). But from that point, the change in output as the volume control is changed will be the same (leaving aside compression/clipping).
For example, the same preamp and speakers might produce an SPL of 85db with one amp and 88dB with another. But assuming the same gain curve in both power amps, a one increment change of the preamp's volume control will yield the same change - upwards or downwards - in power to the speakers and therefore in SPL.
The absolute power capability of the power amp is irrelevant to this equation...up until the point of non-linearity/clipping.
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