Testing cannot prove superiority of a subjective preference.
Testing can prove that a difference can be shown to exist, or not to exist, within a statistical margin of error.
Testing cannot prove that any two sounds are identical.
C'mon! What's your point?
Really? If we can measure the full spectrum of sound (well beyond what we are capable of actually hearing or potentially sensing), how can we not prove that two sounds produced are identical or not?
Do you mean that even if speaker measures identically in an anechoic chamber with two different cables, it may still SOUND different, either in the chamber, or out (which would suggest that the room alters the signal before it reaches the speaker)?
That would be a fascinating result, but let's be clear that the reverse is far more likely, especially when we're talking about the level of measurements suggested by the poster you're responding to. Human testing neatly sidesteps the whole issue when it comes to testing for audibility / audible differences, which I know was part of your point in a previous post, just saying it again.Perhaps I should have said we cannot prove that any two sounds are identically heard, rather than identical. I believe that to the extent we are capable of measuring, we may find that any two sounds test identically, but are not heard (or experienced) identically.
I also suspect it's very similar. On the other hand, I think it's much more rare in foods than in audio that two different products might actually be indistinguishable, which I think is when people really get riled up. I know of one: I've read that logic indicates no reason why different sea salts should taste different unless their crystals are significantly different in size, and that they should all taste the same once dissolved in water. Salt conventions make it clear that many chefs do not agree. I, for one, would not volunteer for the sea salt ABX. That would get painful in a hurry.I see no reason why listening cannot be compared to taste in this manner; but I'd love to see a real scientific study that took this on in a rigorous manner.
Exactly! (and I wonder if the debate is more about whether a difference exists versus whether a change is an improvement or not).

I would be very surprised if it didn't. Just one of many reasons why testing for "better" is more problematic than "different" (except when you're asking for "better", but really only looking for "different").So, could it be that the act of concentrating on sound, like in a DBT, actually changes how we hear and process music?
Just to throw a curveball in, the brain does actually work differently when concentrating as compared to just relaxing. So, could it be that the act of concentrating on sound, like in a DBT, actually changes how we hear and process music? That the heavy concentration involved is physiologically not the same thing as when we are relaxed and listening to our stereo?

Just to throw a curveball in, the brain does actually work differently when concentrating as compared to just relaxing. So, could it be that the act of concentrating on sound, like in a DBT, actually changes how we hear and process music? That the heavy concentration involved is physiologically not the same thing as when we are relaxed and listening to our stereo?
As I said a long time ago, if somebody proves to be able to identify a difference where nobody has ever done so before, that's relevant to anyone who didn't think it was possible. To everyone else, there is little relevance, except as a fresh bit of ammo for online arguments.

IMHO arguing the point, is a waste of valuable time and energy.
I find I like to listen in a darkened room.
I guess the reduction in info. reaching my brain from visual input helps me to process what I'm hearing better.
That said, wouldn't the "stress factor" affect the entire test (thereby balancing out it's effects)? Or, do you think it may eliminate the ability to actually perceive differences that may be there?
Hmmmm....
That's where I'd fall back on signal analysis.
I've been told I'm wrong, but I just can't wrap my head around the idea that two identical signals/waveforms, etc. can somehow be different.
Yes, they may be PERCEIVED as different, but they are technically the same (my system may sound entirely different to me tomorrow due to a humidity spike. this doesn't mean the signal has changed in any way).
So, if two cables/etc. deliver an identical signal to a speaker which results in an identical output but they are PERCEIVED as different, are they indeed different?
Vice versa, if the two signals/etc. ARE different but are PERCEIVED as the same, are they indeed the same?
Both questions are posed within the realm of audibility for humans.
Oh well, I guess it passes the time....
And again... why should anyone have to prove anything?
I certainly did not say anyone should.And again... why should anyone have to prove anything?
If by "myth" you mean the concept that all remotely adequate speaker cables sound the same, that's not something I "believe", it's something I think is probably true because I don't see a reason to suspect otherwise. The "burden of proof" is only on you if you want to convince me that your opinion is fact.If you (or anyone) choose to "believe" what I (we) see as a myth, knock yourself out. But to turn it around on us with "burden of proof", I have no stock in it and quite frankly could not care less what people care to believe (for whatever reasons). Maybe if I sold cables for a living I would feel different.
- If person A says "Telepathy does not exist. Period. You are wrong." Then, the burden of proof is on person A if they want person B to agree with them.
Just to throw a curveball in, the brain does actually work differently when concentrating as compared to just relaxing. So, could it be that the act of concentrating on sound, like in a DBT, actually changes how we hear and process music? That the heavy concentration involved is physiologically not the same thing as when we are relaxed and listening to our stereo?