tomlinmgt
Lunatic Member
I wonder about this. With many speakers the sound produced for low frequencies is so low that any harmonics might not be detectable even if the fundamental is. Isn't the amplitude of a harmonic correspondingly less than the original? And doesn't the harmonic get sent to the mains rather than the s/w? The amp/pre/crossover shouldn't be able to distinguish a harmonic in a recording from a fundamental; it's just another frequency that gets routed somewhere. On the other hand, if THE SPEAKER ITSELF is creating a harmonic when producing the fundamental, then it's entirely possible, and should be curable by using a better driver. I wonder if AK's resident Physicist could shed some light on the finer points of the relation of harmonics to fundamentals? Paging Guiller...
My sparse knowledge on this is that subsequent order harmonics are higher than the fundamental frequency by an order of two.
http://www.physicsclassroom.com/Class/sound/U11L4d.cfm
And yes, the harmonics would be sent to the mains and this is why I think some perceive first and second octave content as directional...because the harmonics associated with the (non-directional) fundamental that resides in a non-directional spectral region are directional.