Big Bill and I have been talking. And I brought this up to him, so I'm posting too.
I was reading through RJM's site and looking at the schematics. I know it might be seen like semantics, I think it is a misnomer. The input impedance of an OpAmp is infinite not zero.
On the site the point made was that a LOMC is a voltage source with a source resistance (the same resistance that the + input has to ground, or signal common). Since the Op-Amp essentially draws no current into itself there are no non-lilearities in the frequency response. The resistor from the + input to ground gives both inputs the same "resistance" to ground. Op-Amps produce voltage to achieve the same voltage at the + and - inputs. I would expect having the same load on both is helpful.
I think it is a brilliant design. So far I don't see this circuit in my 1981 edition of Jung's IC Op-Amp Cookbook. I don't expect it is there, but I might find something like it.
Whatever is happening it is working, we have discussed the possibility of changing it to a passive RIAA filter between the two stages, do you think this would be an improvement?
