Virtually every graph on the web shows the RIAA curve with a zero crossing point at 1khz.
There's a lot of nit-picking going on, but what I think Korf is trying to illustrate is that Lofgren et al calculations are not deterministic of actual distortion levels. As he revealed with his mass/resonance experiments, there's little correlation between theory and practice. At least he's attempting to measure what's going on rather than regurgitate the same old 'facts' without question. Some people will be offended by his conclusions.
We'll have to wait for his next installment to see where he's going with this...
His mass/resonance experiments were very flawed imho. The HFNRR record has imho a fubar vertical resonance test track that he uses, where the 20hz and 18hz track are recorded louder than the rest of the tracks. Because those resonances don't move if I increase the effective mass by 10gr or more... and I have exactly the same 'resonance' as he has (as in very high amplitude) regardless of the cartridge I use. I also have other vertical resonance tracks on other records that don't show this phenomenon. All this faulty data he said he used for his calculator, for which the math he used is very flawed (in his published formulas (he doesn't publish his exact calculator) he assumes every cartridge has the same damping factor....). So his mass/resonance experiments have no real value I think.
Also in the conclusion of this experiment we don't know if the low distortion figures published from that replicant stylus are actually lower than the mathematical models from Loefgren/Baerwald. We only know that they are considerably lower than that from an elliptical stylus and a conical stylus, and that the distortion from that elliptical stylus and conical stylus increase rather heavily to the inner grooves, so where wavelengths get shorter.
Is that a surprise? Not really to me. For me the surprise is that that already happens at 1kHz, provided we see THD here and not say groovenoise that gets amplified by stylii that can't track that noise.
I mean, I see a 'consistant distortion' of somewhere between 0,5% and 1%.
Translated to signal that is already -40dBu. Adding up that the test record signal is -10dB, thats a total of -50dB. To me that's a value that could easily be groove noise and not THD, and that the upslope we see towards the inner grooves with the elliptical and conical stylus are tracking errors. And that the alignment/tracing errors are so small that they hardly rise above the groove noise, especially as the THD value is extra attenuated by the RIAA. I mean, would the graphs be radically different if where the graphs display 0,5% would be 0,75%. That is (out of my head) the difference (3dBu) if the THD is just as loud as the groove noise.